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Sure, you can sue anyone. What people fail to appreciate is the costs. If you're not a skilled legal expert, your basic lawsuit against your neighbor will require $5-10K upfront retainer to your attorney. Any complications 'could' add another 30 or 40 thousand. Suing a foreign government will add another 3 zeros, or more.

That rancher probably owns his ranch in his personal name, which is how you look like a juicy target in the first place. Would they sue him if the ranch was owned by another legal entity, and he just leased or had some kind of caretaker arrangement?

I understand PvP, PvGov, PvForeignGov. The last being in an international court of some type which would have 'authority' over both entities.

The protester case is interesting though: A foreign national suing a US citizen in US court for allegedly being a member of 'terrorist organization' in that country. Well actually not exactly that country. Because Palestine isn't Israel, and Israel may be Palestine through international declaration. lol.

(The fact that multiple IDF helicopter and tank drivers are on record admitting the killings should be noted...)

But how does that logic work exactly? Why would the US Court System be purview to actions which supposedly happened in another country. They are allowing jurisdiction somehow.

It opens up the question of the reverse situation. Same scenario different players. Suppose I have a dead Pali friend who has endured tort by the Israeli government. Wouldn't I now be able to sue in US Court any zogbot who publicly supports Israel?

hahaha, silly peasant, No.