The article from 1890 was written then because the 100 years previous to it had brought the notion of the Jewish Question to every household.
If the Jews are a problem by virtue of their presence, rather than their behaviour, then the Jews were a problem prior to the Holy Roman Empire, for they were granted existence under Rome, and were not genocided as some here would wish they had been.
"But they had no power under Rome, because Rome kept them in check," you might answer.
Fine, then we are in agreement that it is Jewish behaviour, and not the Jewish presence, that is the problem (if there is a problem at all).
But if Jewish behaviour became in issue in France principally after the yoke of Catholicism was thrown off, then the problems that followed this can no more be blamed on the Christian people's tolerance of the Jewish presence prior to that time, than the Romans could be blamed for not genociding the Jews in AD 70.
So what I have said is not irrelevant, if there is a difference between Jewish behaviour pre-1789 in France, vs post-1789 in France, which there clearly is.
And a careful surveillance of history shows that it is similarly following disobedience to the Church, and not by following the Church's dictates, that the Jews gained more power or caused more harm among Christian peoples.
PS -1 points 2 years ago
The article from 1890 was written then because the 100 years previous to it had brought the notion of the Jewish Question to every household.
If the Jews are a problem by virtue of their presence, rather than their behaviour, then the Jews were a problem prior to the Holy Roman Empire, for they were granted existence under Rome, and were not genocided as some here would wish they had been.
"But they had no power under Rome, because Rome kept them in check," you might answer.
Fine, then we are in agreement that it is Jewish behaviour, and not the Jewish presence, that is the problem (if there is a problem at all).
But if Jewish behaviour became in issue in France principally after the yoke of Catholicism was thrown off, then the problems that followed this can no more be blamed on the Christian people's tolerance of the Jewish presence prior to that time, than the Romans could be blamed for not genociding the Jews in AD 70.
So what I have said is not irrelevant, if there is a difference between Jewish behaviour pre-1789 in France, vs post-1789 in France, which there clearly is.
And a careful surveillance of history shows that it is similarly following disobedience to the Church, and not by following the Church's dictates, that the Jews gained more power or caused more harm among Christian peoples.
@CHIRO